Patriot 14E Table IV Practice Test

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• Which statement about data acquisition mode that includes reading from the database during emplacement is true?
• How are the AMG masts extended?
• How often should individuals complete Table I-III?
• What is the maximum number of elevation terrain points that can be entered into Tab 95?
• The maximum distance you position the EPP III from the ECS and RS is limited by what factors?
• What prevents the mast from being lowered or raised when the mast is extended?
• Patriot Prime Power operates at what electrical frequency?
• Frequency Diversity is set to 'on' in which tab and authorized in which tab?
• Frequency Diversity is set to the on position in which tab?
• In the ECS, how many TBM assets can be assigned?
• When leveling the semitrailer, you can utilize the outrigger toggle switches in diagonal pairs.
• Which TAB controls access to the BCP, ICC and other FPs?
• In what tab would an operator retrain an LS to the STL?
• The radar shroud is the first line of defense against which interference?
• The emergency shutdown procedure for the EPP III requires removing the Key from which component?
• Which color indicates attack imminent or in progress?
• Describe minimum engagement.
• At what step does the TCO order 'MARCH ORDER!' to fire control and launcher crews?
• If a track is flying below the high-altitude threshold (TMAT) and threatening an asset what ATC will the track receive
• What RADAR equipment provides the location and alignment data for the Patriot RS during automatic emplacement?
• A track is flying below the high-altitude threshold (TMAT) within 10 Km of your FU, heading directly towards your asset which has an ATC of 2. What will the ATC for that track be?
• What are the three types of PMCS that must be performed daily?
• Name the eight types of missiles the ECS can fire.
• Which data entry provides visibility of the nine most threatening engageable tracks?
• Which device prevents the mast from being lowered or raised?
• Where would you go to see the nine most threatening engageable tracks?
• In ABT Search Mode 1, which sectors are listed as active?
• MRR stands for which of the following?
• SM 4 includes which combination of capabilities?
• Normally applied to long range surface-to-air missiles, a ______ will limit the volume of airspace where weapons may conduct engagements without specific direction from the AADC. It is normally used when a high-altitude missile system has a clear operational advantage over aircraft.
• Which symbol is used to enter a Non-mission capable fault on a PMCS Form?
• What is the nomenclature of the Patriot Configure Three Radar Set?
• Which statement best describes the required relationship between EPP III and ECS/RS when considering hazard reduction?
• A maximum of ____ elevation terrain points can be entered into Tab 95?
• When uncoupling the tractor from the semitrailer, do not drive the truck tractor more than _____ feet from the semitrailer.
• What does the acronym FSC stand for?
• Which statement describes the minimum engagement conditions?
• DAL stands for which term?
• What is the DAL?
• If the latest ACMAF ID sent today was ACMAF 27A, what would the next ACMAF ID be if sent on the same day?
• For expedient emplacement or movement preparation, can both AMG masts be raised or lowered simultaneously?
• What does White indicate in Air Defense Warning Levels?
• Name the four IFF responses?
• What is the joint brevity term Gadget defined as?
• What does EPP stand for?
• Which S/I command the Radar to use Frequency Diversity when authorized in tab 54?
• What ID WEIGHT SET is used for wartime?
• True or False: When leveling the semitrailer, you can use the outrigger toggle switches in diagonal pairs.
• What is the maximum load rating for the AMG protective covers?
• GRANDSLAM brevity means all threats taken down.
• What is the backblast area for a launching station?
• A ____ is an airspace within which the responsibility for the engagement rests with a particular weapons system.
• DAL is used to prioritize assets for defense based on which factors?
• Where can you find the TTDB?
• The SEQ HOOK key is used in conjunction with which tabular display?
• United States Message Text Format (USMTF) is the joint standard for message-based information exchange.
• Which TAB is used for MSE cold fire prevention?
• What is the max allowable time for the EPP in the crew emplacement drill?
• What does the acronym DLT stand for in regards to the DLT antennae?
• Describe Patriot Prime Power.
• A _____ (joint brevity term) is radar or visual air CONTACT whose identity is unknown.
• What is the correct dimension for the AMG emplacement area?
• How many degrees, plus or minus, can the PTL cover in Radar Search/Track?
• Tab _____ displays a list of the five latest faults which resulted from the continuous diagnostic process and provides the capability to display or print the BRU list associated with each fault.
• In the Search Modes, SM 1 is defined as which capability?
• What type of radio is connected to the AMG?
• In SM 2's definition, which capability is listed?
• The joint brevity term 'No Joy' indicates no contact with which entities?
• Which class of leaks is droplets forming?
• What does the acronym PDB stand for?
• The alerts 'RS Roll/ Cross Roll Exceeds TOL' & 'RS DO 0 DEG SLEW- TAB 9' indicate
• When performing a zero degree slew command, what value does the operator slew the radar set to?
• TAB 8 allows the operator to make which change?
• What clearance distance should be established for a Missile Hazard BITE with no damage?
• The alert 'LS1A GPS CODE INVALID' informs the operator that
• (True or False) Failure to remove the comparator travel cover before radiating will destroy the comparator window on the radar.
• How many FREQ CODE SETs are there?
• SM 5 corresponds to which capability?
• A _____ is established for the protection of key assets or facilities, other than air bases, where weapon systems may be fired at any target not positively identified as friendly.
• Which Tab must the ECS allow you in for the BCP to get the radar picture?
• What is the purpose of the SAAFR?
• Which Air Defense Warning Level indicates attack imminent or in progress?
• SM 3 is defined as which combination?
• What is the usable length of the Power Cables on the EPP?
• What does SAAFR stand for?
• In a centralized method of control, the ICC allows subordinate units to conduct their engagements while the ICC performs a management by exception role. True or False?
• Who should be notified when a Missile Hazard BITE occurs?
• The Patriot Configure Three Radar Set designation is AN/MPQ-65.
• What symbol represents a single unknown ABT?
• Which option best represents the base defense zone designation in shorthand?
• The Launcher Location Alignment Data Entry is accessed via which tab?
• Which ID WEIGHT SET is used for wartime?
• What are the two ways you can activate or deactivate an Asset?
• Using the AMG's hydraulic and pneumatic functions in DC mode without the truck engine running will not cause the battery to drain.
• Which document is essential for establishing the Patriot radar's position and orientation?
• Which statement about manual radar emplacement is accurate?
• Which option correctly lists the three Air Defense Warning Levels and their meanings?
• What is the usable length of the control cable on the EPP?
• The ____ encrypts all UHF data to be transmitted and decrypts the received data.
• There is a radiation hazard that extends how many meters in front of the RS Array?
• An ABML 5 describes an intermediate air battle.
• What device is used to determine the AMG vehicle heading?
• What is the total kilowatt rating of Patriot Prime Power?
• Which two tabs must have FREQUENCY DIVERSITY authorized to alternate radar frequencies between each Major Duty Cycle?
• What type of terrain must an AMG be placed on?
• The maximum distance to move the tractor from the semitrailer after uncoupling is 4 feet.
• What is the maximum distance allowed between the ground rod and the AMG ground connector?
• What does SAMSTATREP stand for?
• Which class of leaks is moisture forming?
• WEZ stands for which of the following?
• Which zone is established to limit engagements to the base’s defense envelope and is defined by its short-range weapon systems?
• The AN/MPQ-65 designation identifies the Patriot Configure Three Radar Set.
• The ______ is an air defense zone established around an air base and limited to the engagement envelope of short-range air defense weapons systems defending that base.
• Which warning level indicates an attack probable?
• When is STO Issued?
• What is the next ACMAF ID after ACMAF 27A when sent on the same day?
• Tab 70 correlates to what SI?
• What is the maximum load for the AMG protective covers?
• Radar location alignment data entry is found on which tab?
• When uncoupling the tractor from the semitrailer, do not drive the truck tractor more than how many feet from the semitrailer?
• What does the acronym HEMTT stand for?
• ABML standards 1-16 are contained in which document?
• Which device is required to determine the AMG vehicle heading?
• In Alert State 4, the radar status is Radiate Disable.
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four data acquisition modes available during initialization?
• The ECS can provide coverage for up to how many TBM assets?
• At what temperature would you activate Pneumatic manifold heaters?
• What is the procedure for emergency shutdown of the EPP III?
• Which role is responsible for issuing the RS Location/ Alignment Data sheet when the radar team arrives on site?
• Which of the following is NOT listed among the Four Must Fix Faults?
• Which statement best describes EMCOM's role in Patriot operation?
• The ______ ACM exists below the coordinating altitude and facilitates the movement of rotary wing Army aviation assets.
• What document contains the standards for ABMLs 1-16?
• What must you do when you have a Missile Hazard BITE and there is no physical damage to the equipment?
• All of the following use USMTF except?
• What tab is used to reset the transmitter
• Which Tab 78 entry activates intercept dynamics logic?
• Which distance defines the backblast area for a launching station?
• When arriving on site, who does the TCO receive the RS Location/ Alignment Data sheet from?
• Which option correctly states the AMG protective cover load rating?
• Which acronym stands for the system that provides the roll, cross roll, and the pointing azimuth relative to true north?
• What method of control is used when a higher echelon unit monitors subordinates' actions and only makes direct target assignments on a management by exception basis?
• An ABML 5 is an intermediate air battle.
• If you want to view the BRU list associated with a fault, which tab would you use?
• List all sectors active during ABT Search Mode 1
• Operators can use this tab to change the Radar's STANDARD FREQUENCY even while the Radar is Radiating.
• List the Four Must Fix Faults
• Which document provides the guidelines for decisions in response to equipment failure indications?
• Symbology of an ARM?
• Which device is responsible for encrypting all UHF data to be transmitted and decrypting the received data?
• Which of the following best describes the sequence when the Fire Unit is prepared for firing?
• Timber refers to which system?
• An ______ is a restricted air route of travel specified for use by friendly aircraft and established to prevent fratricide.
• Statement: You can view a launching station's GPS and NFS status in the Operational Assessment SI tab.
• What does TVMAP stand for on the Fault Data Tab?
• The ____ is a prioritized list of assets that need to be defended based on criticality, vulnerability, recouperability, and threat.
• Which of the following is true about the EDWA acronym?
• The _____ provides the guidelines with which appropriate operational (tactical) decisions and/or standard field reporting decisions can be made in response to equipment failure indications.
• How many search modes are there?
• The Patriot Radar does what three functions to targets?
• What are the minimum dimensions required to emplace the AMG?
• The leveling device on the outrigger control box contains a bubble that shows horizontal condition of the semitrailer, and the bubble inside the large outer ring indicates the semitrailer is level. The statement is true.
• Operating hours and road march determine the _______ of PMCS.
• Which units can be selected for the display of target altitude, speed, and range?
• Tab 70 is associated with which system area?
• True/False: If you manually emplace the radar can you auto-employ the launchers?
• Tab 70's SI corresponds to which capability?
• Which symbol represents a single unknown ABT on tactical plots?
• True or False: There are two basic methods of acquiring and disseminating an ACMAF, the digital (electronic) method or the manual (Verbal) method.
• What does Red air defense warning level indicate?
• What is the definition of the joint brevity term FEET DRY?
• What is the definition for the joint brevity term 'leakers'?
• The statement 'Position the EPP III with respect to the ECS and the RS at maximum distance allowed by cable lengths and terrain' is true or false?
• The AMG masts can be raised and lowered simultaneously during expedient emplacement.
• PM&E is what level of gunnery table for the radar crew?
• FEET DRY indicates the aircraft is in which condition?
• Which TBM Column is used to engage ERS threats that are activated in Tab 44?
• During the Prepare for Movement drill, how long should the generator run at no-load to cool the engines?
• In what tab can you change safe corridor alignment level?
• (True or False) OSLB stands Outer Search Lower Boundary.
• What are the minimum dimensions required to emplace the AMG?
• What authority rests with the EMCOM authority?
• How many mast control panels are on the AMG?
• TMAT is located in which tab?
• How many generators are included in Patriot Prime Power?
• The minimum risk route (MRR) is best described as what?
• Which tab is used to view fault data for an ELES launcher?
• PM&E is what level of gunnery table for the radar crew?
• Name and describe the two types of radar mapping.
• Positioning the EPP III at maximum distance reduces which hazards?
• Which class of leaks is droplets falling to the ground?
• On a PMCS form, which symbol is used to indicate a general fault?
• In what tab are your TLAs located?
• What is the nomenclature of the Patriot Configure Three Radar Set?
• Where would you go to see the emplacement status of a LS and the status of its GPS and NFS?
• After Fire Platoon reorientation, what happens to operational launchers out of coverage?
• The term TMAT in this context refers to which concept?
• Which of the following steps can be conducted during the EPP's 5 minute cooldown?
• Which statement best describes the PMCS checks performed daily?
• Local FP search and track boundaries are considered static data. True or False?
• What Tab is Launcher Location Alignment Data Entry?
• Which TAB is used to allow/disallow the BCP, ICC and other FPs?
• What is the roll and cross roll for the AMG?
• What Switch Indicator would you select if you have lost digital data with the ICC?
• Which of the following is one of the Five IFF conditions?
• What is the area in square meters covered by the AMG's minimum footprint (10 meters by 10 meters)?
• Which device is REQUIRED to determine the AMG vehicle heading?
• What is the maximum planning range for a SINCGARS voice transmission in high power mode?
• Which TAB is used to access MSE cold fire prevention?
• Which Data Acquisition Mode includes both standard emplacement and a database read?
• How long should the 1250 ft clearance last during a Missile Hazard BITE?
• How much fuel does one EPP generator hold?
• Which of the following is NOT a Five IFF condition?
• Which designation corresponds to the Patriot Configure Three Radar Set?
• What are the roll and cross-roll for the AMG?
• True or False: Tab 4 allows the operator to select between English or metric units of measure used for displaying target altitude, speed, and range.
• How many total assets can you assign in the ECS?
• How often should the EPP III generators be load banked?
• Which sequence correctly lists the three Air Defense Warning Levels in order of increasing severity?
• What are the 4 Data Acquisition Modes available during initialization?
• The RS Array radiation hazard extends 120 meters in front of the RS Array. The statement is true.
• What does the acronym EDWA stand for?
• Which sequence correctly lists the PMCS steps in the order they should be performed?
• What tab would you run a special test for a launching station in?
• During the Prepare for Movement drill, the generator should run at no load for how many minutes to cool down the engine?
• How far in front of the RS Array does the radiation hazard extend?
• Define the brevity GRANDSLAM.
• Which designation is used for the tripod with the M2A2 aiming circle?
• What is the nomenclature of the tripod used with the M2A2 aiming circle?
• Threat data for the system is located in which tab?
• How often should individuals complete Tables I-III?
• Define the joint Brevity Term 'Timber.'
• What Tab are your threats located in?
• What does EDWA stand for?
• The Patriot Radar performs which three actions to targets?
• BDZ is the air defense zone around an air base limited to the engagement envelope of short-range weapons. Which option best represents this concept?
• Which of the following is not a characteristic of Patriot Prime Power?
• What is the radar set status in Alert State 4?
• What is the joint brevity term for 'Crew does not have contact with the Target or Bandit'?
• During antenna shroud inspection, which defect would you be able to call organizational maintenance to repair an antenna shroud?
• How many ABT assets can you assign in the ECS?
• What symbol is used to enter a general fault on a PMCS form?
• How many crew operators are in the radar crew?
• What does EDWA stand for?
• Which Training Circular covers the Patriot Gunnery Program?
• In what tab can you find GLIF/TWS?
• The radar crew consists of how many crew operators?
• Which tab is the TBM threat set found in?
• Which term describes an airborne threat that passes through a defensive layer?
• Define the Joint Brevity Term BOGEY.
• The radar crew consists of how many operators?
• If multiple targets are within the same IFF beam of the challenged track and only one aircraft responded, what IFF response is displayed on TRK AMP DATA?
• What does the acronym SUA stand for?
• How many personnel are required to stow and secure the ECS boarding ladder?